Sunday 30 December 2012

simplify the CPF EXAM






GENERAL ABILITY AND INTELLIGENCE
The objective question with multiple choice in this paper will broadly cover the following areas.
1.         General Mental Ability: The question will be designed to test the logical reasoning, quantitative aptitude, numerical and data interpretation.
The above mention syllabus seems to be short in the first view, but in practice this show complexity. The question related to General Metal Ability may be a verbal reasoning type. There is less probability of question being non-verbal type. In addition to it the questions Mathematics may be of secondary level. They may comprises Profit and Loss, Surds, Interests, Time and Work, Time and Distance and Interpretation and soon.
2.         General Science: The questions will be set to test general awareness, scientific temper, comprehension and appreciation of scientific phenomena of everyday observation including new areas of importance like Information Technology, Biotechnology, Environmental Science.
            On viewing minutely the above mentioned syllabus it appears that the questions will relate to new branches of public utility and importance, but traditionally question based on Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology etc. may also asked.
3.         Current Events of National and International Importance: The questions will test the candidates’ awareness of current events of national and international importance in the broad areas of culture, music, arts, literature, sports, governance, societal and developmental issues, industry, business, globalisation, and interplay among nations.
4.         Indian Polity and Economy: The questions shall aim to test candidates’ knowledge of the Country’s political system and the Constitution of India, social systemsand public administration, economic development in India, including its indicators.
5.         History of India: The questions will broadly cover the subject in its social, economic and political aspects.  This shall also include the areas of growth of nationalism and freedom movement.
6.         Indian and World Geography: The questions shall cover the physical, social and economic aspects of geography pertaining to India and the World.
Subject-Wise Distribution of Questions of Paper-I UPSC CPF Exams
Subject
Section
2011
2010
2009
2008
2007
2006
2005
2004
2003


D
C
D
C
D
C
D
C
D
C
D
C
D
C
D
C
D
C
Indian History and culture
Ancient
Medieval
 Modern
After-Independence
Culture and Arts
1
2
1

0
3
2
4
6

0
1
1
1
4

0
1
1
2
10

0
1
2
1
3

1
0
0
3
5

1
2
2
3
10

0
0
1
1
7

0
0
0
1
13

0
0
0
0
1

0
1
0
2
4

0
1
1
4
5

0
1
1
2
5

0
1
0
1
1

0
4
1
0
4

0
0
2
1
9

2
2
3
1
1

0
0
3
0
4

0
2
Geography
Physical Geography
Human & Economic
World Geography
Indian Geography
1

3

1
2
3

1

1
3
3

1

2
2
4

1

3
3
2

1

1
1
2

3

2
3
5

2

6
4
4

1

3
2
3

0

5
4
2

2

1
0
2

3

1
1
2

3

1
3
4

0

3
7
2

0

2
4
0

0

0
1
4

1

7
10
2

0

0
2
7

0

3
10
Science
Physics
Chemistry
Zoology
Botany
Agriculture and Animal Husbandry
Environment Computer & Defence
Research
Health & Nutrition
5
2
1
0

1
1

2
0
4
2
3
0

1
3

2
0
5
4
1
1

0
0

1
2
7
4
1
1

0
0

1
2
0
1
2
2

1
0

0
2
5
5
2
2

1
1

1
3
2
5
3
1

1
0

0
2
2
3
2
1

0
0

0
2
2
5
2
0

1
0

2
5
1
2
1
0

0
0

1
2
1
2
0
1

1
0

1
2
6
6
1
1

1
0

4
1
1
7
0
1

0
0

0
6
1
0
1
0

0
0

2
2
0
1
0
0

0
0

1
0
4
3
1
0

0
0

5
4
1
3
2
0

3
0

0
0
2
4
0
0

0
2

7
4
Indian constitution and Polity
4
4
4
9
6
5
6
3
5
3
5
8
4
3
0
14
4
7
Indian Economy
6
4
1
3
3
6
5
3
3
2
4
8
3
4
0
4
3
4
Current Affairs
National
International
2
2
3
3
1
1
1
2
2
2
4
3
2
1
2
1
6
12
0
0
1
1
1
1
3
4
3
3
1
1
4
4
3
2
3
5
Mental Ability
Mathematics
General Intelligence
7
3
5
9
6
8
3
3
3
1
10
9
2
6
1
3
3
1
9
1
1
4
3
14

3
12
5
7
3
5
10
11
5
6
7
5
SPORTS
1
0
0
2
1
2
2
0
3
0
1
1
3
1
2
3
0
5
Miscellaneous
3
7
3
8
0
9
7
6
12
3
2
09
6
3
0
3
0
0
Total Number of Questions : 125
54
71
53
72
40
85
77
48
93
32
40
85
76
49
20
105
41
84
The above table give subjects-wise distribution of questions asked in UPSC CPF Assistant Commandant Exams Paper – I General Ability and Intelligence held in 2009, 2008, 2007, 2006, 2005, 2004 and 2003. The table also shows distribution of questions under the heading Direct and Indirect types of questions.
The questions in General Ability and Intelligence would be Objective Type Multiple Choice nature. Each questions would contain four Alternative Answer Choices. Sometimes the Alternative  Answer Choices remain very closely related while sometimes some absurd Answer choice are also included. Therefore, candidates are required to arrive at some logical and reasoned conclusion while answering the question in paper. The candidates should be able to select the most appropriate Alternative Choice on the basic of correct information. The candidate must have the ability to discard unsuitable Alternative Choice and the ability to distinguish between very closely related answer Choices because there remains only one Answer choice which is correct in all respect. Thus candidate must have knowledge about other Alternative Choice also apart from the correct Answer Choice.
On the basic of inherent difference and similarities the question of general ability and Intelligence paper can be classified into following two broad categories:
1.         Direct or Simple Type of Questions
2.         Indirect or Complex Type of Questions
1.         Direct or Simple Type of Questions
1.         “Foot and Mouth Disease” is found in
            a) Cats and Dog            b) Cattle                       c) Poultry                      d) Humans
2.         Where are the Headquarters of INTERPOL located?
            a) Berne                       b) London                     c) Lyon             d) Rome
3.         What is the chemical name of saltpetre, which is used in the preparation of gunpowder also?
            a) Potassium chloride                                         b) Potassium nitrate
            c) Potassium sulphate                                        d) Potassium carbonate
4.         Who was the Prime Minister of India when the 73rd and 47th Amendments to the constitution of India dealing with Panchayats and Municiplities were enacted?
            a) Indira Gandhi            b) Rajiv Gandhi             c) P V Narasimha Rao  d) V P Singh
5.         Which one of the following European countries borders Atlantic Ocean?
            a) Portugal                    b) Austria                     c) Finland                      d) Romania
6.         Which of the following States is the first to have enacted to comprehensive legislation to protect the girl child?
            a) Karnataka                 b) Goa                          c) Maharashtra d) Madhya Pradesh
7.         Which of the following countries is not included in G-8 (Group of 8 industrialized countries)?
            a) Italy                          b) Russia                      c) Holland                     d) Canada
8.         Which one amongst the following is the oldest Dynasty?
            a) Pallava Dynasty        b) Chola Dynasty          c) Maurya Dynasty       d) Gupta Dynasty
Answers:
1. (b)                2. (c)                3. (c)                4. (c)                5. (a)                6. (d)
7. (c)                8. (c)
All the questions give above are direct and very simple. Each question contains four direct Alternative Choices. Each questions requires sing information and very limited knowledge is necessary to solve each of these questions. For instance, the very first question. For instance, the very first question requires who was the Viceroy of India when Indian National Congress held its first session in 1885. Similarly, Questions Number ‘3’ is related with the chemical name of saltpeter. Al these question do not require much deliberation to select the correct answer.
 2.        Indirect or Complex Type of Questions
            In this type of questions the candidates are required to have some idea about all the four Alternative Choices. Generally the Alternative Choices of such questions remain overlapping and quite confusing. The additional information provided in the question itself may be complicated and confusing. Complex type of questions may be asked in different formats, such as
            A. Matching Pair
            B. Assertive or Negative Questions
            C. Selecting the Correct Statement.
            D. Assertion and Reason Type Questions Matching Pair
1.         Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
            List – I : (Scientists)                              List – II (Well known as)
            A. Birbal Sahni                          1. Mathematics
            B. Ramanujan Srinivasa             2. Paleobotanist
            C. Sir C.V. Raman                                3. Physicist-Botanist
            D. Sir J.C. Bose                                    4. Physicist
            Codes
                        A         B          C          D
            a)         3          1          4          2
            b)         2          1          4          3
            c)         3          4          1          2
            d)         2          4          1          3
2.         Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
            (1) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan : Tabla
            (2) Ustad Bismillah Khan : Shehnai
            (3) Pt. Hari Prasad Chaurasia : Flute
            (4) Pt. Shiv Kumar Sharma : Santoor
3.         Match List-I (Authors), List – II (Books) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
            List – I (Authors)                               List – II (Books)
            A. Jai Prakash Narain                           1. Bunch of old letters
            B. Jawaharlal Nehru                              2. Golden Threshold
            C. K P S Menon                                   3. Prison Diary
            D. Sarojni Naidu                                    4. Yesterday and Today
            Codes
                        A         B          C          D
            a)         2          3          4          1
            b)         4          1          3          2
            c)         3          1          4          2
            d)         4          2          3          1
4.         Match List – I (Plant/Factors) with List – II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below      the Lists
            List – I (Plant/Factory)              List – II (State)
            A. Bokaro Steel Plant                            1. Tamil Nadu
            B. Bhilai Steel Plant                               2. Madhya Pradesh
            C. Intergral Coach Factory                    3. Chhattisgah
            D. Integral Coach Factory                     4. Jharkhand
                                                                        5. Uttar Pradesh
            Code :
                        A         B          C          D
            a)         4          1          5          3
            b)         2          3          1          5
            c)         4          3          1          5
            d)         2          1          5          3
5.         Match List – I (Place) with List – II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
            List – I : (Place)                                  List – II: (State)
            A. Srihorikota                                        1. Karnataka
            B. Thumba                                            2. Andhra Pradesh
            C. Hassan                                             3. Orissa
            D. Chandipur                                        4. Kerala
                                                                        5. Tamil Nadu
6.         Match List – I (Place) with List – II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
            List – I : (Substances)                        List – II: (Constituent)
            A. White paints                         1. Titanium dioxide
            B. Glass                                                2. Phosophorus
            C. Artificial fertilizers                            3. Sodium silicate
            D. Match stick                                      4. Potassium sulphate
                                                                        5. Potassium chloride
7.         Match List – I (Place) with List – II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists
            List – I : (Place)                                  List – II: (State)
            A. Filaria                                              1. Hereditary
            B. Epilepsy                                           2. Waterborne
            C. Enteric fever                                    3. Contagious
            D. Mumps                                            4. Insect transmitted
            Codes
                        A         B          C          D
            a)         2          3          4          1
            b)         4          1          2          3
            c)         2          1          4          3
            d)         4          3          2          1
8.         Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
            List – I                                                 List – II
            A. Linux                                               1. Internet
            B. Pentium                                            2. Programming language
            C. C++                                                  3. Microprocessor
            D. MODEM                                         4. Operating System
                                                                        5. Laser Printer
            Code
                        A         B          C          D
            a)         2          1          5          3
            b)         4          3          2          1
            c)         2          3          5          1
            d)         4          1          2          3
Answers:
1. (b)                2. (a)                3. (c)                4. (c)                5. (b)                6. (d)                7. (b)
8. (b)
Assertive or Negative Question
            In this type of questions all  the four Alternative Choices bear a lot of similarity. In order to solve these questions one must be aware of all the four Alternative Choices. In the words, one must have sufficient knowledge about the content of such questions. Now consider the following examples to understand the nature of such type of question:
1,          Three bodies having mass 3m, 2m and m mare dropped simultaneously from top of a high tower. Which one of the following is the correct statements?
            a) The time taken by the bodies having mass 3m, 2m and m respectively, to touch the ground will be in the ratio 3 : 2 : 1.
            b) The times taken by the bodies having mass 3m, 2m and m respectively, to toch the ground will be in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3.
            c) They will all touch the ground at the same instant.
            d) The kinetic energies of the bodies having mass 3m, 2m and m, respectively, will be in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 on touching the ground.
2.         A long chain having 100 identical steel links is to be pulled from its tons. The cahin is elongated by adding another 50 links to it.
            Which of the following is correct statement?
            a) The force induced in each link will be equal to 20 newtons.
            b) The force induced in each link will be equal to 30 newtons
            c) The force induced in each link will be equal to 3000 newtons
            d) The force induced in each link cannot be determined unless its dimension are given.
3.         Which of the following is the correct Statement?
            a) The Himalaya Pass Nathula is in Himacahal Pradesh
            b) The Dhaola Dhar Range of mountain is in Arunachal Pradesh
            c) The Nanda Devi Peaks is in Sikkim
            d) The Pir Panjal Range of mountain in Kashmir.
4.         Which of the following is not the correct Statement?
            a) Kanda is a Tidal Port.
            b) Cochin port is located at the entrance of a lagoon.
            c) Chennai is a neutral harbor
            d) Vishakahpatnam is the deepest landloard port in India.
Answers:
            1. (c)                2. (c)                3. (d)                4. (b)
            In this type of question generally two or three statement furnishing some pieces of information are provided. The candidate are required to select the correct Statement. Now consider the following question.
1.         Consider the following Statements:
            1. The Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant is operated by the Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd.
            2. The Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Ltd. which has been conferred with Golden Peacock Eco Innovation Award, 2004 instituted by the World Environment Foundation is located in Karnatka.
            Which of the Statement given above is/are correct?
            a) 1 only                       b) 2 only                       c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
2.         On which of the following achievement does the UNDP Human Development Report base its rating of Human Development Index (HDI) in respect of different countries?\
            1. Life expactency
            2. Education attainment
            3. Adjusted real income
            Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
            Code
            a) 1 and 2                     b) 2 and 3                     c) 1 and 3                     d) 1, 2 and 3
3.         Consider the following Statements:
            1. India won the One-day Cricket World Cup in 1983 in Australia.
            2. Sunil Gavasket made his test cricket debut against England.
            3. Anil Kumble took 10 wickets in one inning of a cricket test match against Pakistan.
            Which of the Statement given above is/are correct?
            a) 1 and 2                     b) 3 only                       c) 2 only                       d) 1 and 3
4.         Consider the following statements:
            1. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act gives constitutional status to the Gram Sabha.
            2. Gram Sabha means a body consisting of the persons elected by the villagers above the age 18 years residing in the area of the Gram Panchayat.
            3. The Constitution envisages that Gram Sabha select beneficiaries under the various scheme of the central Government under taken for rural development.
            Which of the Statement given above is/are correct?
            a) 1 and 2                     b) 2 only                       c) 3 only           d) 2 and 3
5.         Consoider the following statement:\
            1. Greenland is an overseas territory of France.
            2. Bermuda an overseas territory of UK is situated in Western Atlantic.
            3. State to Behrain is situated in the Persian Gulf.
            Which of the Statement given above is/are correct?
            a) 1, 2 and 3                  b) 2 only                       c) 2 and 3                     d) 1 and 3
6.         Consider the following statements related to Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
            1. He advocated widow remarriage.
            2. He strong advocated for the abolition of Sati system.
            3. He advocated for the promotion of English education.
            Which of the Statement given above is/are correct?
            a) 1 only                       b) 1 and 2                     c) 2 and 3                     d) 1, 2 and 3
7.         Consider the following Statements:
            1. Lord Mounbatten was sent to India in place of Lord Wavell as the Governor General of India in March 1947.
            2. In July 1947, British Government passed Act containing the main provisions of the Mpountbatten Plan. This is known as the Indian Independence Act.
            Which of the Statement given above is/are correct?
            a) 1 only                       b) 2 only                       c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answers:
            1. (c)                2. (d)                3. (b)                4. (c)                5. (c)                6. (c)
            7. (c)
Assertion and Reason Type Question
            N this type of questions two statement are given, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other Reason (R) and you are required to decide the correct relationship between these two statements. Now consider the following example to understand the nature of such questions:
Direction (1 – 4): Each of the next Four items consists of two statements : one labeled as the Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items the codes given below:
Code:
            1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
            2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
            3. A is true but R is false.
            4. A is false but R is true.
1.         Assertion (A): In the Mediterranean forest, the plant have spiny waxy or small leaves.
            Reason (R):  In the Mediterranean region, trees adopted to live long dry season without shedding leaves.
2.         Assertion (A): In the Northern Hemisphere, winds get deflected to the left of their path.
            Reason (R):  The rotation of the earth causes a change in the direction of the winds.
3.         Assertion (A): Fats on oxidation yield half as much energy as that yielded by carbohydrates.
            Reason (R): Fat molecules contain less oxygen as compared to carbohydrates.
4.         Assertion (A): Recently Australia and East Timor were involved in a bitter dispute.
            Reason (R): The dispute was over illegal migration of a large number of persons from East Timor to Australia.
Direction (5 – 8): Each of the next Four items consists of two statements : one labeled as the Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items the codes given below:
Code:
            1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
            2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
            3. A is true but R is false.
            4. A is false but R is true.
5.         Assertion (A): If two bodies of equal weight – one cylindrical and another conical are floating in water, then their depth of immersion shall be equal.
            Reason (R):  Weight of the liquid displaced by the floating body is equal to weight of the body..
6.         Assertion (A): If the domestic refrigerator with its door open is kept running in a room, then it shall be cooling the room like an air-conditioner does..
            Reason (R): Evergy can be converted from one from to another.
7.         Assertion (A): If market rate of interest falls, then the prices shall rise.
            Reason (R): Price rise is a result increase in the demand.
8.         Assertion (A): Alkalis are frequently used for cleaning utensils and clothes in houeholds.
            Reason (R): Alkalis readly dissolve in water.
Answers:
            1. c                   2. b                   3. d                   4. a                   5. d                   6. d
            7. a                   8. b

            From the above discussion it is clear that diverse type of questions are asked in General Ability and Intelligence Test Paper of UPSC CPF Assistant Commandant Exams. In order to solve this questions correctly, intelligence is required with proper knowledge. First of all try to understands the question and point out what is being asked. Sometimes answer lies in a single word of the question. Be carefully while solving following types of question.
·                     Which of the Statement is/are correct?
·                     Which of the Statement is/are not correct?
            Do you know that at present more than ten million persons in our country have their name on the live register of Employment Exchange? All of them are educated matriculates. Graduates, technicians, diploma and degree holders. Perhaps you would also be aware that there is an increase of three per cent registration in the employment offices in our country every year. It is perhaps more shocking that there are more educated unemployed youths not registered with the employment exchange than those registered. Is your name registered? Perhaps not. There are several million like you, whose name are not registered. Remember we are taking of only educated unemployment here. The number of uneducated employed here. The number of uneducated unemployed is far greater. The working population in our country is constituted by those in the 18-60  age group. Or, in other words about 40% to the Indian population is the potential employee, not all of whom actual earners. We may even say about 10% of the educated youth are unemployed., out of which you might be one of them. You may say how re we responsible for our unemployment? After all the Government doesn’t provide us with job. Perhaps you are right, but partly so because
·                     The Government provide employment opportunity to educated Indians.
·                     Appriximately one lakh youths are absorbed every year in various Government organization from clerk to gazette officers.
            It is quite a different matter altogether that the figure of one lakh is like a drop in the ocean of unemployed youths. But the figure of one lakh is in itself a gigantic figure. Hardly any other nation of the world would perhaps be finding such a mega employment opportunity for its citizen in the Government Sector.
            After reading these facts two candidates would react in two different ways. Some candidates may get disappointed in the face of an army of 20-million unemployed. Like Arjun they may surrender even before entering the battlefield. But another candidates will focus not on two millions but on one lakh. Those one lakh who fought, labored, aimed, shot the target, and became successful. Where are you looking? Towards 20 millions or towards one lakh? Are you able to see a glass half full of water of half empty? Remember, your perception sows the seed of your success or failure which your nurture daily with your optimistic or pessimistic thoughts.
            Here we repeat once again a man’s thought is responsible for his success of failure and if this is so why not our reader should enter the battlefield inspired by the goal of success. A second important fact is that while success may be our goal, our eyes should be on present duty whether we are successful or not. That is, if our duty is prepare for a competitive exams, we should be single mindedly involved in it and not waste our time and energy in thinking whether we shall be successful or not. Although one fact is clear : hard and honest labour leads to success. Someone has rightly pointed out the failure lack of hardworking and honesty some point some where. Do you know what was the dedication to wards the duty in Amitabh Bachchan, the uncrowned king of Indian film Industry. Before his first success, twelve of his film flopped one after the other. Take the example of Thomas Alva. Edison who invented the electric bulb. He needed a filament which could give sufficient light without melting under the impact of heat. And he experimented with more than one thousand filament one after the other to arrive at tungsten filament which is even to day lighting the whole world. If they had got despondent after their initial failure and surrendered \, they would have surely been in the list unsuccessful men lost in the darkness of anonymity.
            So far have discussed about success strategy which every candidates must imbibe to be on the path of success. But the question arises what should be candidate do who is optimistic, hardworking industrious, competitive, devoted toward duty? Which path should he choose? Such candidates will have to think and decide on some questions. These are
1.         Am I completely aware of the exam, in which I am going to appear?
2.         Do I have the knowledge of the syllabus and the question papers?
3.         Do I have the knowledge of the standard of questions?
4.         Am I aware of my potential? That is, how many questions can I do correctly in how much time? How much can I score?
5.         Do I know the cut-off marks for the selection?
6.         Am I aware of my limitation? That is, how much labour can I do? How much can I remember etc.?
7.         Do I know after how much labour and how much time can I get the maximum cut-off marks?
8.         Di I have the knowledge of the books to be studies for this exams?
9.         Do I know the best book or books amongst the books for this exam?
10.        Do I know about the publication or publications related to these books?
DETAILED SYLLABUS
TRADITION GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
·                     Abbreviation
            Abbreviation relating to (1) Science and Technology (2) Economics (3) Art and Culture (4) Institution and Organization (5) Current Usage
·                     Book and Authors
(1) Classical books-Indian and World (2) Historical books-Indian and World (3) Geographical Books (4) Astrological Books (5) Medical Books (6) Astronomical Books (7) Books on love and sex (8) Books on Art and Culture (9) Books written by written by important personalities (10) Books in controversy and news in the live years (11) Award winning books in the live years.
·                     Sayings/Statement
(1) Statements by famous historical personalities World and India (2) Statements by famous philosopher World and India (3) Statements of famous poets and Philosophers-World and India (4) Statements of famous character of famous plays-World and India (5) Statements by great authors, dramatists, artists, doctors, critics-World and India.
·                     India at Glance
(1) National flag, National nsignia, National anthem, National song, National flower, National bird, National fruit, National festival, National calendar (2) Indian Armed Forces Army, Navy and Air Force, Defence expenditure, arms and weapons. Indian Army strength, Territorial Army, National Cadet Corps, Para military organization (3) Major Institution-India’s major scientific and Industrials centres and labs, Major training institutes, Industrial Institutions (4) Indian Cabinet, Central ministry, State ministry (5) Human resource and culture, Education policy, Art and culture dance, Musical instruments, Artists, Painting, Festivals, Folks dance, Folk arts (6) Mass communication, radio, television, film, major news paper and new agencies.
·                     World at a Glance
(1) Commonwealth of Nations (2) Non-Aligned Movement, member countries, beginning of the movement, basic aims, present relevance etc. (3) UNO constitution, membership, basic aims, (4) SAARC aims, member countries, SAPTA etc. (5) other International Organization-WTO, European Community, NPT, OPEC, NATO, Red Cross, Amnesty International, NAFTA, ASEAN, League of Arab States, Interpol, Islamic Conference etc. (6) Cold war and the state of world politics today (7) Environment and the present problem of the world such as housing population, drugs, women health etc. (8) Current International problem and terrorism (9) India’s foreign policy (10) Our neighbours (11) Growing economic competition in the world.
NON-TRADITIONAL GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
HISTORY
·                     WORD HISTORY
Ancient World History:
(1) Important civilization of the world, their contribution (2) Important rulers of ancient world (3) Ancient world history Art, religion, literature and culture (4) Ancient world script, inscription, excavation site, coins, metal in use (5) World History-Famous personalities, famous towns and cities, famous battles, chronology of important event, administrative and religious centres, famous movements and historical places.
Medieval World History:
(1) Change in science and technology (2) Islam and Christianity, Religious War and Feudal mode of production (3) Feudalism (4) The Great Roman Empire (5) Important cities of the Medieval world (6) Medieval world: historical movements, art and culture, literature, science and astronomy (7) Medieval world : wars (8) History of England at a glance (9) History of France at a glance (10) History of China at a glance (11) History of Russia at a glance (12) Renaissance (13) Religious Reform Movement and rise of capitalism (14) Scientific Revolution (15) Imperialism (16) Industrial Revolution (17) Important rule famous empires and places of religious importance.
Modern World History:
(1) French Revolution and Napoleon (2) English Revolution and Civil War (3) Russia (4) Militant Nationalism and Imperialism (5) China, Japan, Indo-China, Egypt, Turkey and Iraq (6) Anti-Imperialist Revolution (7) First and the second World Wars (8) Development of science, art, literature, and religious (9) Famous personalities and famous wars and treaties
·                     INDIAN HISTORY
Ancient Indian History
(1) Pre-Harappan cultures and Indus Valley Civilization : Origin, importance of town planning, trade and commerce, down fall (2) Famous towns of ancient India (3) Chronology of important events (4) Age of Mahajanapadas (5) Ancient Indian Rulers and important kingdom, Magadh, Maurya, Shunga, Kanva, Andhra Satavahana, Kushana, Guptas, Vardhna etc. (6) Rajputs (7) Religion and Culture in ancient India (8) History of South India.
Medieval Indian History
(1) Slave dynasty, Khilji dynasty, Tughlaq dynasty, and Lodi dynasty (2) Vijyanagar and Bahamani Kingdom (3) Bhagti and Sufi Movement (4) Art Science, Religion, Society, Economy and Administration (5) Religion Kingdoms and their features (6) Contemporary historians and their work (7) Famous battles and their chronology.
Mughal Dynasty:
(1) Babur, Humanyun, Akbar, Jehangir, Shah Jehan, Aurangzeb and the other Mughal rulers (2) Zamindari Mansabdari and Zagirdari system (3) Religious policy of the Mughals, eccan policy, Rajput policy etc. (4) Art, religious, society, economy and administration (5) Famous historians and their works (6) Sher Shah, Sikh and Maratha empire (7) Famous wars and their chronology.
Arrival of European Companies:
(1) Fall of Mughal dynasty (2) Arrival of various European companies (3) War of supremacy amongst the European Companies (4) Rise and expansion of East India Company.
Modern Indian History
(1) Bengal, Avadh, Punjab, Hyderabad and British imperialism (2) Famous wars and treaties (3) Ranjit Singh, Tipu Sultan and Jai Singh (4) Major agrarian revolts (5) Major tribal revolts (6) Major caste movement (7) Major labour movement (8) Famous Governor General and Viceroy and their achievement (9) The Revolt of 1857 (10) Socio-Religious reform movements (11) Economic history of modern India (12) Constitutional history of modern India (13) Administrative history of modern India.
Freedom Movement
(1) Important newspaper, periodicals novels minor and major literary works. (2) Important personalities, organization, conference and Institution (3) Famous thoughts, philosophies and statements (4) Rise of nationalism, congress moderates and militants (5) Achievement of annual congress meeting (6) Anti-partition movement in Bengal and Swadeshi (7) Rise of revolutionary terrorism in India (8) Gandhi and the freedom struggle (9) Important Indian Personalities their thoughts  and philosophies
GEOGRAPHY
Natural Geography
(1) Universal Star, planet, moon and other celestial bodies and their relation (2) Atmosphere and environment and ecosystem, rainfall and heat distribution (3) Land forms and Geographical features earthquake, volcano, rocks, mountain, plateau, plain , river, lakes, seas, ocean, air current, ice berg etc
Economic and Human Geography
(1) Natural resources Renewable and non-renewable (2) Agriculture (3) Energy preservation and conservation (4) Industry (5) Transport and Communications (6) International Trade (7) Pollution, Human settlement (8) Major language and their distribution (9) Dams (10) Land, Air and Sea routes (11) Important dates, decades, tribes and animal (12) Trade names (13) Famous river, tourist spots, places building, mineral belt, agricultural belts, technology, ports, air ports, sea ports etc. of India and world (14) Important industrial belts, forests national parks, sanctuaries etc. of India & world (15) Highest, tallest, biggest, deepest, hottest, coldest etc. in India and World.
Geography of India
(1) Geographical features of India and its geographical extent (2) Natural features (3) Physical construction (4) Crops Industries, minerals and their distribution (5) population regional distribution, population explosion (6) Living and non living resources (7) Trade transport and communication (8) Land use and water resources (9) Human resources
INDIAN ECONOMY
(1) Nature of Indian Economy (2) Indian development : Capital Technology, Institutional factors and factors (3) Natural resources : Land, Forest and Minerals (4) Unemployment and Employment Plans (5) Energy, energy crisis, transport, irrigation, communication, nuclear development (6) National income, income distribution and poverty (7) Planning and development in India (8) Five Years Plans an introduction (9) Process and method of investment in planning (10) Five Years Plans first to ninth nature and character (11) Tenth Five Year Plan (12) Economic stability and infrastructural reforms (13) Indian Agriculture : introduction, natural agricultural process, Agricultural policies, Animal husbandry, land reforms, irrigation, fertilizers, seed, insecticide, green revolution, modern technology, institutional reforms, Agricultural finance, market, price, price policy, Agricultural co-operative (14) New Economic Policy and Public Finance: Fiscal Responsibility Act, Twelfth Finance Commission and Fiscal Federalism and Fiscal Consolidation. (15) New Economic Policy and Monetary system. Role of RBI under the new regime. (16) Planning: From central Planning to indicative planning, Relation between planning and markets for growth and decentralized planning: 73rd and 74th Constitutional amendments. (17) New Economic Policy and Employment: Employment and poverty, Rural wages, Employment Generation, Poverty alleviation schemes, New Rural, Employment Guarantee Scheme.
CONSTITUTION & POLITY
Constitution of India
(1) Nature of constitution (2) Making of constitution (3) Characteristics of Indian Constitution (4) Citizenship (5) Fundamental rights and Fundamental duties (6) Indian Government and its Constitution (7) Legislature in India (8) Executive in India (9) Judiciary in India (10) Public Service in India (11) Legislative and Financial procedure at the central and state levels (12) Centre State relation (13) Basis of Indian Democracy (14) Adult Franchise and the representative system (15) Party System, welfare group, pressure group, election system (16) Panchayat Raj (17) Goal of Indian Constitution (18) Planning and development (19) Social and Economic Justice (20) Welfare of schedule caste and schedule tribes (21) Secular State (22) Federalism (23) Election Commission (24) State language and regional language (25) Emergency provision (26) Constitutional amendments (27) Major political parties in India
SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
Science And Introduction
(1) Branches of Science (2) Scientific terminology (3) Important invention (4) Important scientific instrument (5) Definition, Laws etc. (6) Physics and Chemistry (7) Biology-Human body, organ and their function, diet and balance diet, endocrine glands, blood, skin, disease and treatment,
Zoology: classification, characteristic of different classes, cells, tissues, disease, treatment, heredity, etc. Botany classification, characteristic of different class, cell and tissues, photosynthesis, nitrogen fixation, disease, treatment, development and hybrid seeds (8) Science and Technology Science policy (9) Scientist and technological institution
Current Affairs and Sports
This section includes current events of national and international importance including sports and persons and places in news. All those events which have been in the news in the last three months may be included under this section. The event can be from any field including (1) Constitution and politics (2) Economy (3) Science and technology (4) Environment (5) Computer (6) Culture (7) New fields such as oceanology (8) Sports tournaments stadia (9) Events related to sports including controversy (10) Present status of different sports (11) Olympic, international tournaments, commonwealth games, Asian Games etc. 12. Miscellaneous.
          The Union Public services commission employees the term General Mental Ability Test to cover a range of question of the Objective Type which can be answered by the candidate using his mental traits and which are not connected with the knowledge of subject like history, geography, Indian economy, Indian polity, general science etc. that are otherwise integral parts of General Ability and Intelligence Paper. However it is very difficult to justify the nomenclature since mental ability is required to answer question in the other parts of General Ability and Intelligence Paper also. In the ultimate analysis the essential mental faculties of knowledge, memory, comprehending capacity, and above all intelligence do find enough scope, in varying proportion, in the study of different subjects and the General Mental Test can be easily and definitely differentiated from the questions asked on the other subjects in a General Ability and Intelligence Paper. Therefore our main objective of the discussion should be the delimitation of the content of General Mental Ability Test, rather than defining and analysis the nomenclature and to seek proper justification for the term used. The question under the general Mental Ability Test fall into several categories.
          (i) Elementary Mathematics (Arithematic and Geometric):
          (ii) Logic and Reasoning
          (iii) Intelligence Test and
          (iv) Statistical Analysis of Tables, Graphs and Diagram.
          At the outset of discussion on General Mental Ability Test it is prudent to have a look on the previous year’s question of the Union Public Service Commission CPF Assistant Commandant Exams held in 2003 and 2004.
1.       Let number of three digit have for its middle digit the sum of the other two digits. Then it is a multiple of
          a) 11                      b) 10                      c) 18                      d) 50
2.       A cube is cut into 216 identical smaller cubes. In how many different ways can the smaller cubes be arranged to form cuboids of different surface areas if no two cubes are to be placed one above another?
          a) 6                       b) 8                       c) 14                      d) 16
3.       Four volunteers represent the school A, 5 volunteers represent the school B, 6 volunteers represent the school C and 3 voluinteers represent the school D. Each of the volunteer from shake hand exactly once, what is the maximum possible number of handshakes?
          a) 27                      b) 36                      c) 45                      d) 54
4.       A two digit number is reserved. The large of the two numbers is divided by the smaller one. What is the largest possible remainder?
          a) 27                      b) 36                      c) 45                      d) 54
5.       A, B, C, D and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R, S and T (not necessary in that order). Each one of them comes from a different city. Further it is given
          1. B and C do not belong to Q.
          2. B and E do not belong to P and R.
          3. A and C do not belong to R, S and T.
          4. D and E do not belong to Q and T.
          Which one of the following statement is nor correct?
          a) C belongs to P     b) D belongs to R     c) A belongs to Q    d) B belongs to S
6.       Q ids the son of P. S is the son of Q. U is the mother of R. T  is the spouse of Q. P is the father of R but R is not his son. V is the spouse of R.
          Which of the following statement is not correct?
          a) S is the grandson of P                        b) S is the grandson of U
          c) V is the son-in-law of P                     d) V is the son of U
7.       Six singers are talking part in a music competition. There are 4 judges for the competition. How many comparisons does each Judge make between all the singers to select the best among them?
          a) 15                      b) 20                      c) 24                      d) 25
8.       A question booklet contains 100 questions for a test. A candidate get 4 marks for every correct answer, loses 1 mark for every wrong answer, and no mark for a blank answer. Which of the following sets of marks can be secured by three candidates?
          a) 396, 395, 394       b) 393, 392, 390       c) 392, 391, 390       d) 389, 388, 387
9.       There are three possible paths to go from A to B and four, possible paths to go from B to C. A person wishes to go from A to C. What is the probability that the person will not follow a particular path while traveling from A to C?
          a) 1/12                             b) 1/7                     c) 6/7                     d) 11/12
10.     In how many different way can 6 boys be seated on 4 chairs if one chair can accommodate only  one boy?
          a) 24                      b) 120                    c) 240                    d) 360
11.     How many numbers are there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the unit’s place?
          a) 64                      b) 80                      c) 90                      d) 104
12.     In a question paper there are five question to be attempted and answer to each question has two choices – True or False. It is given that no two candidates have given the answer to the five question in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is
          a) 10                      b) 18                      c) 26                      d) 32
13.     Rs. 782 is divided into three parts proportionally to the fractions  and . Then the first part is
            a) Rs. 182                     b) Rs. 190                     c) Rs. 196                     d) Rs. 204
14.        If the duty of an article is reduced by 40% of its present rate, by how much percent must the consumption increase in order that the revenue remains unaltered
            a) 60%                         b)                      c)                      d)
15.        A train passes through a tunnel whose length is 500 metres in 1 minute while running at a speed of 72 km/h. The length of the train is
            a) 700 m                                   b) 750 m                       c) 800 m                                   d) 825 m
16.        Rakesh got married 8 years ago. His present age is  times his age at the time of his marriage. Rakesh’s sister was 10 years younger to him at the time his marriage. The age’s of Rakesh’s sister is
            a) 40 years                    b) 38 years                    c) 36 years                    d) 32 years
Answers
            1. a       2. a       3. a       4. c       5. d       6. d       7. a       8. c       9. d       10. d     11. c     12. d    
            13. d     14. c     15. a     16. B

GENERAL MENTAL ABILITY
First of all look at syllabus prescribed the Union Public Service Commission:
“The question will be designed to test the Logical Reasoning. Quantitative Aptitude, Numerical Data Interpretation.
          Thus, this section of Paper – I General Ability Intelligence Contains two major subjects: Reasoning (Intelligence) and Mathematics.
Mental Ability is a complex concept which encompasses varied aspects that are inter-related. This inter relationship of various aspects that are inter related. That explain by diagram given below.
CONTENT OF MENTAL ABILITY
I. Non-verbal or Figural section is a part of Abstract Reasoning and the ‘figural relation’ means the capacity of understand, comprehend and manipulate objects. This is also called ‘concrete intelligence and performance IQ by psychologists.
II. It is basically a mental exercise to deal with symbols. The capacity to think effectively with words as symbol as well as numbers symbols is included in this section. Each symbol represent certain word or number in this type of questions. Thus each symbol or sign is assigned two values – one real value (meaning) another implied value.
III. Semantic Ability is the capacity to deal with ‘meaning’ or read be twine lines. This includes originality flexibility, foresight and shifting of meaning from the given pieces of information towards brevity and conciseness (that is to say Inference or Conclusions). This could also be called insight into written material with originality. Semantic Ability is also at the abstract level but it is different from verbal ability. While verbal ability deals with the relation between words and letters, Semantic ability deals with ‘ideas’ – their proper analysis and the construction of new original ideas.
IV. Behaviour Ability is also known as ‘social intelligence’. It is the ability to deal or interact effectively with other people, to evaluate, examine and judge the behavior of persons of groups of persons. It includes the capacity to understand emotions, actions, interactions and outcomes of reaction of persons to each other. Man, being a social animal, this quite and essential ability, Effectiveness in the relationship between parents and children, students and teachers, employers and employees, management and workers, leaders and followers and interview – all these depend a great deal on the ability to understand and judge human behavior.
APPLICATION OF MENTAL ABILITY
          Every individual is endowed with certain degree of intellect and it differs from one individual to other. Individual also differ in their style and ways of application of intellect. Some use intellect in one way effective while other excel in other ways. The various application of intellect are given below.
I. Comprehension : It includes grasp and understanding of the given pieces of information only without assuming beyond the information given. The best here should be to scrupulously follow instruction., identify the root of the problem and to work with a cool and cautious mind. It is also called ‘cognitive style.’
II. Retention : After comprehension some individuals are able to store the given pieces of information into ‘retention’ and are able to recall it quickly whenever these are required. Recalling the right information at the right time, accurately and quickly is a key to success. This also called ‘memory ability’.
III. Reasoning : The include the logical application of comprehended and retained information. The ability to grasp object relation, relation of idea ability of analysis and synthesis and convergent and divergent thinking can be included in this area. Reasoning is a style of higher order complex mental ability. The word REASONING itself have various manifestation and each letter of the word is used in wider context. This can be understood effectively with the help of following chart:
IV. Evaluation : This means arriving at an outcome, a conclusion and implication, after reasoning, analysis and logical thinking have been applied. The style of evaluation helps the individuals problem solving ability and insight and foresight regarding problems. This most helpful usually while dealing with other person and social situation like group conflicts and communal tension.
Now we can evaluate the concept of Mental Ability with the help of following simple facts.
·              Mental ability is the coordinated result of various activity of mind.
·              Mental ability is a function of the mind.
·              Mental age means mental development.
·              Intelligence means general ability.
·              Intelligence is fully developed by the best combination of heredity and environment.
·              An illiterate person is not necessarily an unintelligent person.
·              Average intelligence is a pre-requisite for all normal activities.
·              Intelligence and creativity do not always go together.
·              An intelligent person may not necessarily be creative but a creative person is always an intelligent individual.
For success oriented preparation of Intelligence Test candidate should read the following topics of Reasoning:
1.       Analogy
2.       Classification
3.       Word Formation
4.       Rank and Arrangement
5.       Blood Relationship
6.       Distance and Direction
7.       Series
8.       Mathematical Problem
9.       Arrangement in word in a Logical order
10.     Venn Diagram
11.     Symbol and Notation
12.     Trends and Operations
13.     Cubes and Dices
14.     Coding and Decoding
15.     Problem Solving
16.     Statement and Conclusion
17.     Syllogism
18.     Schedule Day/Date/Time
MATHEMATICS
          The question in this section will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidates. The scope of the test will be the computation of whole numbers, decimals and fractions and relationship between numbers. It will test sense of order among numbers, ability to translate from one name to another, sense or order of magnitude estimation of prediction of the out-come of computation, selection of an appropriate operation for the solution to real life problem and knowledge of alternative computation procedures to find answers.
The brief sketch of syllabus mentioned elsewhere (prescribed by Union Public Service Commission) clearly indicates that the main aim of this section is to test how quickly you can perform accurate calculation.
          Mathematics is the subject related to calculation. A concerted and precise effort is required to score cent percent marks in this section. Though this subject is included in the circula of every school but candidate who comes from Arts stream or a candidate who is appearing in the competitive exams for the firs time, may feel difficulty in this section as here “time” is very limited. In a short span of time you have to solve maximum number of questions. Beside this, candidate have to decide “accuracy” between “right” and “wrong”. The required accuracy can be attained only through calculated and persistent efforts. Moreover, regular practice and memorization are the tools which will lead you to success. Gradually you must learnt short-cut methods and other tricky approach to solve the questions quickly and accurately.
          The brief syllabus may not give an accurate idea about the important topics from which questions may be asked in the examination. Therefore, we are enlisting important topics:
1.       Simplification
2.       Number System
3.       H.C.F. and L.C.M
4.       Ratio and Proportion
5.       Partnership
6.       Percentage
7.       Average and Age Related Problems
8.       Profit and Loss
9.       Simple Interest
10.     Compound Interest
11.     Allegation and Mixture
12.     Time and Work
13.     Time and Distance
14.     Mensuration
15.     Number Series
16.     Data Interpretation
17.     Data Sufficiency
18.     Discount
19.     Square and Square Roots
20.     Cube and Cube Roots
21.     Power, Indices and Surds
22.     Test of Divisibility
23.     Algebra
24.     Probability and Statistics
25.     Logarithm
PAPER II : GENERAL STUDIES, ESSAY AND COMPREHENSION
Ticking of clock brings forth continual changes. These changes seem pertinent as are need of time. A concord with changes is key to success. Let’s corborate our view with an example. The Union Public Service Commission conduct CPF Exams. The written exam has two components : Paper I : General Ability and Intelligence; Paper II : General Studies, Essay and Comprehension.
When we drop a minute look at the question with an analytical view in mind. We meet with some noticeable changes. No doubt Paper I remains same. The nature of questions, their tenor, penetration and domain everything establishes resemblance with the past. No marked changes are evident.
But Paper II is certainly a little bit different. Let’s unveil its hidden ingredient.
·              Duration of exam is extended from 2 to 3 hours
·              General Studies, Essay and Comprehension replace Essay, précis Writing and Comprehension.
·              Till 2010, one Essay in 600 hundreds words, two précis writing and one comprehension completed the question paper.
·              Today is different from yesterday.
A candidate is required to be prepared for long and short answer type question. In UPSC, CPF Assistant Commandant Exams, 2011, a candidate was required to write:
·              An essay in about 800 words.
·              Two précis and two passages (comprehension)
·              Question based on argument/counter-argument.
·              Report writing.
·              Questions based on common errors, Idioms/Phrases, Fill up the blanks etc.
Clearly direct question based on Grammer get space in the question paper.
Since this examination is to be conducted by UPSC it is not possible to set standard regarding the nature of questions. But it is certain that the Questions will be asked within this specified syllabus. The candidate should emphasize on comprehensive study covering all the topics mentioned in the syllabus. They should make preparation strategy perfect in all respects and assess their performance through self evaluation Test at regularly intervals.
ESSAY WRITING
Introduction : The word essay (French essai, Low, Latin exagium), literally means an attempt or a trial. It sense and modestly applied to those terse and brief notes of his “set down rather curiously than significantly” which go by the name of Bacon’s Essay. But the father of this species of French magistrate Sieur de Montaigne. It was in the month of March 1571 in his castle, in a study to which the philosopher withdrew surrounded by his books and sheltered from the excesses of the fatiguing world, that the modern essay saw the light.
Such was the genesis of the essay. It went on developing and became one of the most interesting and enjoyable forms of literacy composition. The ideal essay is a kind of private rather than a public talk. There must be in it an air of taking the reader into confidence. A sense of intimacy must be established between the writer and the reader. A certain thing suggest a train of thought, bring visions and recalls memories, from which cloured and informed by the personality of the essayist springs the essay. And the true essayist handle the subject with the loving and delicate care of an artist and not with the ponderous and dissecting intellect of a metaphysician. No subject is special to the essay, none alien from it.
But the essay which a student is called upon to write is quite a different thing. It is not a loose sally of the mind but systematic mental discipline, a regular training in the art of arranging and expressing one’s thought on some  particular topic. It is a test of one capacity to thing on subject and of expressing those thought in a clear and intelligible way. It should therefore be a harmonious blending of thought and expression. The one with out of the other make the essay defective. (If thoughts are wanting, the essay becomes verbose; if the language is not keeping in with the thoughts, it becomes heavy and understanding. Moreover, the essay as whole must have a unity of design, proportion of part of consistency.
Relevancy: There must be judicious handling and arrangement of thoughts. The significance of the title and the scope of the essay must be clearly realised.We must know what is exactly wanted and how far we can go. A failure to recognize these things make essay either too narrow or too wide.
A student is often found wandering away from the topic and beating about bush, because he has not carefully noted the wording of the subject and its exact scope. If for example, in writing an essay on Adversity is good on the evil of prosperity and the sums up by writing a few line on the good adversity brings, his essay is not to the point. Again, if the dilates on the evils of adversity and then sums up by writing a few lines on the good adversity brings, his essay is not the point. Again, if he delates on the evils of adversityand then adds  few lines on its good aspects, he is not also doing justice to his subject. He is asked to write on the good which adversity bring and not so much on its evils nor on the evils of prosperity. These points may briefly mentioned by way of contrast, but they should not be made the principal theme. A student must always see that he is relevant.
Proportion: An essay is a string of thoughts artistically arranged. Now all these thoughts are not of equal importance. Each thought should be given as much space and prominence as are consistent with its importance. If equal emphasis is laid on all the parts, the essay becomes monotonous. A sense of proportion is essentially necessary for all kinds of artistic production. Where this proportion or valance is wanting, it in invariably ends in disproportion which is but another name for ugliness. For example in the essay mentioned above adversity is good for man, it is necessary that a great space should be given to the good aspects of adversity and by way of contrast a paragraph or two on the essay is wanting in proportion. Again discussing the good effects of adversity of man’s character we must be carefully to distinguish the moral and mental benefits from the physical benefits it brings. As moral and mental qualities are superior to physical ones, greater space and prominence should be given to these than to the physical effects. This sense of proportion is essential for a good essay.
Arrangement:  Again thoughts which go to make up an essay must be arranged in their natural order of relation and importance, so that as we pass from one thought to another there may be an essay transition. Logical contiguity must be observed. This gives an air of artistic unity to the whole treatment. Where this logical arrangement is lacking the essay is difficult to follow. Of course there cannot be any hard and fast rule about the arrangement, it depends upon the subject and the manner of treatment, but it is essentially that some sort of arrangement should be adhered to. Besides this logical order, another thing to remember is this that we should try to keep up the reader’s interest upto the last by not placing the most important points in the beginning.
Simple and Clear Language: Now as regards the language of the essay, it is necessary to note that it should be as easy and natural as possible. We must avoid conscious aiming at effect of any sort of imitation. It is futile to try to imitate another’s style, for each man has his own way of writing just as he has of walking or speaking. The style is the man. Adopting another’s style is liking putting on another’s clothes. We should write in our own way, only it must be simple, direct and concise. Sometimes students are found committing to memory certain sentences, phrase and idioms to be pitch forked into their writing. The effect is disastrous. These purple patches appear as ludicrous as the dress of the crown. Unevenness creeps into the language. We must try to avoid this practice write in our own way. It is good to remember the words of Mathew Arnold, himself a great stylist, in this connection; “People think I can think I can teach them style. What stuff it all is! Have something to say and say it as clearly as you can. This is the only secret of style.
PRACTICLE HINTS
This essay is first a test in composition and then in the student’s capacity to think on a particular topic. Equal attention must therefore be paid to these.
As regard composition one should always write in his own natural way. Each has his own style of writing. Show one should avoid imitation of any style. Style cannot be imitated. By a careful reading of the best writers one forms one’s own style. Moreover, nobody expects from a student the style of Macaulay, Ruskin or Arnold. All that is wanted is that he should write correctly and in a clear and simple way. Much of the vagueness of language is due to the haziness or confusion of thought. If your thoughts are clearly conceived, language will also be clear. But there are certain thing which should be always kept in mind if one is to write simple and correct English. It is a foreign language and the most difficult thing to manage in a language which is not your own, is the use of phrases and idioms. Of course there are places where you cannot but use them, but as a rule you should try to avoid them as far as possible. There was a time when many teachers in the schoold thought that the surest way to writing good English was to use as many idioms as possible. Nothing can be far from truth. The next thing is to avoid trite phrases. A trite phrases is one that has been used so often that it has become and common place through constant repetition. These cliches jar in the ear and sin against that final rule of all composition namely euohony. Here are a few specimens of these trite phrases – by dint of, the trony of fate, filthy lucre, a head and heart, more in sorrow than in anger etc.
The next thing is mind is the right choice of words. Coleridge defined poetry as “the best words in the best order”. The same is partly true of prose also. You are often content to use first words that come into your head and never care to think and choose.
Language is given to express your thoughts and each thought has a particularly world or symbol for it. It should be your aim to find it out. This means a knowledge of the exact meaning of the word and its use. Avoid vague and trival words (like nice awfully nice, terribly) and also slangs. A good command over vocabulary is an asset. The beauty and expressiveness of your language will great depend upon the right choice and right arrangement of words. These will give you precision and clarity. Make it also a point to use simple word and not long., learned and difficult words. There is no necessity of using learned words. Like cogitate, erudite, puerile when there are plain and simple words like reflect, learned , childish. Never use two words when one will do. Economy is a valuable thing.
Next you to remember certain fundamental rules of grammer It is often found that students commits errors in (i) the use of the sequence of Tenses. (ii) the direct and indirect narration (iii) the use of the definite Article (iv) the sue of appropriate preposition. Most of these rules are theoretically known our students but they have not been sufficiently assimilation by constant practice in writing. What of practice and carelessness account for these mistakes.
The last but not the least thing you are to notice is the construction of your sentence. A sentence way contain several thoughts bit it should have  central thoughts to which others are subordinate. This secures its unity. So, it should be your aim not to put into a sentence anything that would take away your attention from the main thought. This added to coherence which requires placing connected ideas in close proximity, should be always kept in view in constructing your sentence. See also, that your sentence is complete and the construction is not loose.
The following PRACTICLE HINTS on writing an essay should be carefully remembered.
(i) First try to understand clearly the wording of the subject and its scope. They will tell you what is wanted.
(ii) When the meaning and the scope are understood, pause to think over the subject. As each thoughts come to the mind, joy it down. Go on in this way till you have a number of thoughts sufficient for your essay. The major portion of the time allotted to the writing of an essay should be thus spent.
(iii) When the thoughts have been jotted down, arrange them according to their natural connection and logical order so that there may be an essay transition from one thought to another.
(iv) Make rough outline of the essay, putting down introduction in the beginning, the thoughts (already jotted down and arranged) in the middle and the conclusion at the end.
(v) Make tour introduction as interesting as you can. An introduction may be begun in various ways (a) with a definition, (b) with a quotation either in prose or verse (c) with a story or anecdote or (d) in the middle of the subject – in a dramatic way. A student choose for himself the way in which he can be most effective.
(vi) When the introduction is written, develop each point jotted down into a paragraph, always taking care that the transition from one paragraph to another should be an essay one.
(vii) Sum up the main ideas in a paragraph which will be the conclusion. Like the introduction, the conclusion must be interesting, so that a good impression may be left on the mind of the reader at the end.
(viii) Your essay is now a well knit piece of composition beginning with an introduction and ending in a conclusion. Revive the essay to see that the whole thing has a unity of design. If anything seems irrelevant, omit it.
PRECIS WRITING
Precis writing is both and arts and skill for it calls for not only a through understading of the passage given including its subtle nuances but is also demanding in that you must be able to express the given passage in about one third of its length. This is not so much a technical skill as the art of controlling and manouevering your pen. For Instance what has been said above in about 50 words could be reduced in not more that 15 words as follows:
Some Important Hints
1.         Read the passage carefully two or three times until you have a clear idea of its general purport. The original passage may contain some ironical elements which mean just the opposite of what is said. This should be clearly understood before writing down the précis.
2.         Note down the important points so that the précis can be written down from these points within the stipulated word limit in your own words by elaborating these points.
3.         Illustration or stylistic effects, such as exaggeration, repetition, expansion or bombast which are not necessary to the meaning and are just added merely to illustrate the arguments should be left out.
4.         No personal comments are to be made while writing the précis.
5.         The style and matter should not be reproduced. Your own style should be used.
6.         A précis should be written in Indirect Speech unless in very rare cases when it is essential to incorporate some words in their original form. It is advisable to use Past Tense if the incidents of the passage given for précis refer to the past.
7.         Last but not the least, précis should be made of whatever matter is given whether it is obsolete or contains some portions which have no relevance to the present times or which predicts something about the future times which have already passed.
A summary or précis is the shortened form of a passage. A good summary should be complete in itself. It should be able to convey the ideas expressed in the original passage so that a reader who does not have enough time to read the original one should have no trouble getting the message.
A summary should be brief, clear and precise. It should be brief, but it shouldn’t be a number of disjointed simple sentences. A good summary should give ideas, facts or points in the order in which it appears in the original. Note that it is best to write summaries in the same tense as the original.
The original passage may contain pieces of conversation. When you summarize it, all the sentences given in the direct speech should be changed into indirect. The summary should be in the writer’s own words. As far as possible, avoid using the vocabulary used in the original. Also note that a summary shall not contain points not mentioned in the original.
COMPREHENSION
In this section normally one passage is given with four to five questions at the end of each passage. Most of the students find this section tough as the passage tend to be complex and it is very difficult to comprehend the passage as well as answer all the question in the given time. There for you should develop the habit of speed reading at a specified words per minute while preparing for this section. While there is no doubt that it is important to read fast, but a close look at the title of this section tell us that the problem probably lies on COMPREHENSION. Therefore for speed of reading cannot be more than speed of comprehension. Developing reading speed is not difficult, as we think, but the real issue is to build speed of comprehension. An author while writing passage normally tends to deal with one idea in every paragraph. He/she then gives a perspective around this idea by either giving example or by stating argument that support this idea. Such support is essential to convince the reader of the main argument,. Therefore the mauin aim of this section is to test the candidates’ skill of being able to different between information and supporting arguments. The technique to be followed for this section is therefore called “The Key Idea Technique”. A key idea is the central thought of the paragraph and all the information is built around it. Here let us distinguish between a passage and a paragraph. A passage can contain several paragraphs. Each paragraph normally has only one key idea. A key idea can be expressed in sixc to ten words. If we write down the key ideas of each paragraph of a passage then key idea of all the paragraph will link together to summarise the idea conveyed by the passage as a whole.
             Quite a few students believe that it is possible to understand the key idea of paragraph by just reading the first and the last sentence but this need not be necessarily tru.
            “The level of comprehension” (understanding) of passage is very wide term and this includes skill such as
            (a) logical ability and the ability to infer
            (b) ability to link paragraph for analytical ability
            (c) ability to reason
            (d) ability to understand the motive of the author.
            (e) reading speed
            (f) vocabulary power and
            (g) retaining factual information to save time, otherwise you will always have to refer back and find out the required information which will necessarily consume valuable time.
            Majority of the candidates believe in reading the question first. The assumption is that one will be able to find the answer faster in the text of the passage, if one knows the questions before reading the passage. But there are three very good reason not to follow this technique:
(i)         Firstly, it is not possible for anyone to remember all the questions as they are given at once. Again when one reads the passage, one’s stress will be on locating the answer to the questions and not on comprehending the central idea of the passage.
(ii)        The order of the question need not be progressive with the text. Thus one may not be able to find the answers in the same order.
(iii)       Now it is observe that most of the questions in reading comprehension are are indirect. Such question may be the following formats.
(a)        It can be inferred from the passage that … (Implied Information) passage that … (implied information).
(b) According to the author … (Main Idea)
(c) The passage is primarily concerned with … (Main idea)
(d) The author’s statement that  … (Specific Information)
(e) Which of the following describe the mood of the passage … (Tone or Mood)
(f) The author implies that … (Implied information)
(g) The main purpose of the passage … (Main Idea)
(h) The author tone is best describe as …. (Tone or mood)
(i) One could easily see the authors as … (implied information)
(j) What is the difference / commonality between … (Linking paragraph)
This list may be still longer. The answers to such questions cannot be directly lifted from the text of the passage. One can answer these questions accurately only if one has a good comprehension of the passage.
SOME IMPORTANTS TIPS
1.         The most important way to really understand what you are reading.
2.         You should underline important parts of passage. The underlining will help you to answer questions. Practically a question will ask you to detect the main idea or the information that is specifically mentioned in the passage or information that is implied (not directly) stated in the passage or the tone/mood of the passage.
            If you find out quickly what the question is aiming for, you will arrive more easily at the correct answer by referring to your underlining in the passage.
3.         While reading the passage you should translate the information contained in each para into your own language by analyzing the elements of the passage, recognizing the relationship between these elements, seeking cause-effect relationship implication.
4.         Encircle transition and key words which reading the passage. The transitional words are “bridge” words that will help you to discover logical connection in the given passage In circling these transitional word will help you to get a better understanding of the passage,.
5.         Derive the meaning of “tough or unfamiliar” words by using the context method. Suppose you don’t know the meaning of a certain word in a passage , try to determine the meaning of the word from the context, i.e., from the word that are close in position to that word whose meaning you do not know. Often an authors uses an unfamiliar word and then immediately defines it with in the sa